Surgery Important Question For NEET PG/FMGE 2025

If you are preparing for NEET PG/FMGE, you are required to have a strong grasp of surgery concepts as the subject forms a significant part of the syllabus. It covers a plethora of topics ranging from thyroid tumors, hernias, and liposarcomas to wound healing and portal hypertension. You need to prepare thoroughly for this section if you wish to perform well in the exam.

However, we understand it can be overwhelming for you to peruse vast and extensive syllabus and then revise it till the time you know it through and through. For you to save the hassle, we have compiled a list of high-yield surgery questions. These questions are sure to deepen your understanding, identify important clinical scenarios and help you ace the exam with confidence.

Without further ado, let’s dive straight in the blog so you know what and how to prepare for the biggest challenge in your life.

Q1. A 58-year-old woman has a 5 cm thyroid tumor with extrathyroidal extension, cervical lymphadenopathy, and no distant metastasis. Based on the TNM staging system, what is the most accurate classification for this patient?

1. T3b N1 M0
2. T4 N1 M1
3. T4 N1 M0
4. T2 N0 M0

Answer: 3) T4 N1 M0

Explanation: 

T4 indicates extensive extrathyroidal extension, N1 signifies regional lymph node involvement, and M0 denotes no distant metastasis.

Also read: Penis & Urethral Surgeries

Q2. A patient comes to the surgery OPD complaining of small swellings and a wound on his right lower leg. On clinical evaluation, he is found to have hyperpigmentation in his right leg around the ankle and lower third of the leg. He also has a healed venous ulcer and is symptomatic. According to the CEAP classification, what is the clinical stage of the disease in this case?

1. C5a
2. C5s
3. C3r
4. C6

Answer: 2) C5s

Explanation:

According to the CEAP classification, the healed venous ulcer belongs to the C5 group, and since the patient is symptomatic, it can be classified as C5s.

Q3. A 72-year-old male with COPD presents with sudden severe shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. On examination, he is cyanotic, in respiratory distress, and has diminished breath sounds on the right side. A CXR shows a large air collection in the right pleural space. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax (PSP)
2. Secondary Spontaneous Pneumothorax (SSP)
3. Chylothorax
4. Hemothorax

Answer: 2) Secondary Spontaneous Pneumothorax (SSP) 

Explanation:

SSP is common in older adults with underlying lung diseases such as COPD. The patient's symptoms of severe shortness of breath, chest pain, and a history of COPD are classic for SSP.

Q4. What is the most specific investigation of choice (IOC) for peripheral arterial disease?

1. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) 
2. Duplex ultrasonography 
3. CT angiography 
4. Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA)

Answer: 3) CT angiography

Explanation: CT angiography is considered the most specific investigation of choice due to:

• High resolution: High-resolution imaging of the entire vascular tree from the abdominal aorta to the foot arteries in a single examination.
• 3D reconstruction: Providing 3D reconstructions is crucial for intervention planning.
• Calcification detection: Accurate detection and quantification of arterial calcification.
• Less invasive: Less invasive than conventional angiography while maintaining detailed imaging.

Also read: Robotic, Laparoscopy & Bariatric Surgery

Q5. A 22-year-old male presents with right lower quadrant pain for the past 24 hours. On examination, the surgeon demonstrates cutaneous hyperesthesia in an area bounded by a line joining the anterior superior iliac spine, the umbilicus, and the pubic symphysis. Which of the following statements regarding this clinical sign is most accurate?

1. This sign is known as Sherren's triangle and indicates retro-cecal appendicitis 
2. The hyperesthesia is due to irritation of the T10-L1 nerve roots by the inflamed appendix 
3. This sign is highly specific for appendicitis and rules out other causes of right lower quadrant pain 
4. The presence of this sign contraindicates the use of laparoscopy for appendectomy

Answer: 2) The hyperesthesia is due to irritation of the T10-L1 nerve roots by the inflamed appendix. 

Explanation: Sherren's triangle:

• It is a clinical sign in acute appendicitis characterized by cutaneous hyperesthesia in the right lower quadrant.
• The area is roughly triangular, bounded by lines joining the anterior superior iliac spine, umbilicus, and pubic symphysis.
• It is caused by irritation of the nerves supplying the anterior abdominal wall (T10-L1) by the inflamed appendix.

Q6. A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with an adenocarcinoma located 4 cm below the gastroesophageal (GE) junction. According to the Siewert classification system, what type of tumour does he have, and how should it be treated if it does not extend into the GE junction?

1. Type I; treated as esophageal adenocarcinoma
2. Type II; treated as gastric adenocarcinoma
3. Type III; treated as gastric adenocarcinoma
4. Type III; treated as esophageal adenocarcinoma

Answer: 3) Type III; treated as gastric adenocarcinoma

Explanation:

Type III tumours are located between 2 and 5 cm below the GE junction and are treated according to guidelines for gastric adenocarcinoma, provided they do not extend into the GE junction.

Type	Adenocarcinoma around cardia	Location
Type I	Distal oesophagus	1-5 cm above the cardia
Type II	Real Cardia	1 cm above and 2 cm below cardia
Type III	Sub-cardial stomach	2-5 cm below cardia

Also read: Tubes, Catheters And Drains

Q7. A 50-year-old patient comes to the OPD concerned about a newly developed whitish discolouration in his mouth. On examination, a white plaque-like lesion was found in his buccal mucosa, which could not be rubbed off. What is the most likely diagnosis?​​

1. Leukoplakia 
2. Erythroplakia
3. Speckled leukoplakia
4. Chronic hyperplastic Candidiasis 

Answer: 1) Leukoplakia

Explanation:

The clinical scenario here points to the diagnosis of leukoplakia.

Leukoplakia is defined as a white patch or plaque that cannot be rubbed off and cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease.

It is a premalignant lesion and is painless/non-tender. 

Q8. A patient presents with a large, open wound on the lower leg that has been left to heal naturally without surgical closure. This type of healing is best described as:

1. Healing by primary intention
2. Healing by secondary intention
3. Healing by tertiary intention
4. Delayed primary closure

Answer: 2) Healing by secondary intention

Explanation:

Healing by secondary intention (Option B): The wound is left open to heal by granulation, contraction, and epithelialization. This is common in wounds with significant tissue loss or contamination.​

Also read: INI-CET High Yield Questions for Surgery

Q9. A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening abdominal distension and visible abdominal veins. He has a history of chronic alcohol abuse and has been experiencing increasing fatigue and jaundice. 

​​Which of the following vessels is involved in this condition?

1. Left gastric vein
2. Superior and inferior epigastric vein 
3. Superior mesenteric vein
4. Inferior vena cava

Answer: 2) Superior and inferior epigastric vein 

Explanation:

Caput medusae is a clinical sign associated with portal hypertension. It occurs due to increased pressure in the portal vein system, resulting in the development of engorged veins around the umbilicus. It usually forms a shunt between the paraumbilical vein and the inferior and superior epigastric vein.

Q10. A 67-year-old male presents with a gradually increasing bulge in his right groin that becomes more prominent when standing and straining and can be reduced when lying down. The bulge is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. Which statement best describes this inguinal condition?

1. Direct hernia, passing through a defect in the abdominal wall.
2. Indirect hernia, passing through the deep inguinal ring into the scrotum.
3. Direct hernia, passing through the deep inguinal ring.
4. Indirect hernia, passing through a defect in the abdominal wall.

Answer: 1) Direct hernia, passing through a defect in the abdominal wall

Explanation: 

The medial bulge to the inferior epigastric vessels indicates a direct inguinal hernia, which protrudes through a weakness in the abdominal wall at Hesselbach's triangle.

Also read: Urinary Incontinence: Types, Causes and Treatment

Q11. A 58-year-old woman is diagnosed with a high-grade retroperitoneal liposarcoma. After treatment, her oncologist monitors for metastases. What's the most common site of metastasis for retroperitoneal sarcomas?

1. Lungs
2. Liver
3. Bone
4. Brain

Answer: 1) Lungs

Explanation: 

Retroperitoneal sarcomas, including liposarcomas, spread primarily via the bloodstream, and the lungs are the most common site of metastasis.

• Retroperitoneal sarcomas are rare, aggressive tumours often diagnosed late due to non-specific symptoms.
• Subtypes include liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and malignant fibrous histiocytomas.
• Treatment: Surgery is the mainstay, often followed by radiation or chemotherapy.
• Prognosis: Depending on size, grade, and resectability, local recurrence is common.

Q12. A 30-year-old woman sustains a stab wound in the neck that is located just above the cricoid cartilage but below the angle of the mandible. The injury is causing severe bleeding, and there is concern about the potential involvement of vital neck structures. Which neck zone is most relevant for assessing this patient's potential injury to major blood vessels and the trachea?

1. Zone I
2. Zone II
3. Zone III
4. Zone IV

Answer: 2) Zone II

Also read: Lipoma: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis and Treatment

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