Important MCQs on National Health Programs

There is no denying the fact that conquering the expansive study of preventive and social medicine (PSM) for NEET PG can feel overwhelming.

And, when it comes to crucial topics like national health programs, it’s a whole different story. These programs tend to play a significant role in India’s public health landscape. The fact that this topic is frequently covered in exams makes it essential fir the students to have a strong grasp of their key components.

In this blog, we’ve made it easier for students to ace this topic by compiling important MCQs focused on national health programs.

Each question is designed to test your understanding and prepare you for what might appear on exam day. Dive in to boost your confidence and enhance your preparation for NEET PG!

Q. All are true about Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram except?

1. Free diet to mother during hospital stay.
2. Free delivery
3. Free transport from home to hospital and back
4. Free treatment of sick infants up to 6 months

Q. Under NRHM, who will be the link person between community and health care service?

1. Anganwadi worker
2. TBA
3. ASHA
4. ANM

Q. Janani Suraksha Yojana includes:

1. Tetanus Immunization
2. Institutional Deliveries
3. Iron supplementation
4. Abortions

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Q. Which health care center is not a part of LaQshya?

1. CHC
2. District hospital
3. PHC
4. Sub district hospitals

Q. What is the incentive known to train medical officers and ANMs for intrapartum care?

1. LaQshya
2. SPARSH
3. Dakshatha
4. MAA

Q. An initiative for zero preventable maternal and newborn deaths is:

1. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
2. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan
3. Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan
4. Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram

Q. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandane Yojana was launched by which ministry?

1. Ministry of health and family welfare
2. Ministry of women and child development
3. Ministry of human resource and development
4. Ministry of education

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Q1. Under Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, training for health workers should be provided for how many days?

1. 1 day
2. 2 days
3. 7 days
4. 15 days

Q2. What is the program for screening development delay, deficiency, and neonatal genetic defects is?

1. Janani Suraksha Yojana
2. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
3. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram
4. Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram

Q3. All facilities are provided in the newborn care corner except.

1. Care of sick newborn
2. Care of normal newborn
3. Breastfeeding support
4. Support to low-birth-weight babies

Q4. This program was launched by which ministry?

1. Ministry of Women and Child Development
2. Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
3. Ministry of Human Resource Development
4. None of the above

Explanation

• The Ministry of Human Resource Development launched the midday meal but later shifted to the Ministry of Education.
• Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • Maternal health initiative (Pradhan Mantri Mathur Vandana Yojana)
  • ICDS
  • Poshan Abhiyan
  • Ujjawala
  • Integrated Child Health Protection Services

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Q. Sentinel surveillance for HIV under the National AIDS Control program is used for all except?

1. Estimation of total infection in community
2. Estimation of total cases in hospitals
3. Estimation of trend of the disease
4. Classification of districts

Q. For diagnosis of HIV infection in asymptomatics, minimum number of tests required is/are:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Q. According to CDC recommendations, HIV screening of pregnant women is:

1. Opt-in testing
2. Opt-out testing
3. Compulsory
4. Symptomatic

Q. Most effective to prevent HIV vertical transmission:

1. HAART
2. Nevirapine
3. Zidovudine
4. Elective CS

Q. HIV postexposure prophylaxis should be started within:

1. A. 24 hours
2. B. 48 hours
3. C. 72 hours
4. D. 6 hours

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Q. In case of accidental exposure, the post exposure HIV prophylaxis should be started immediately, best within

1. 2 hours
2. 48 hours
3. 72 hours
4. 4 hours
5. 24 hours

Q. No. of adult weight band categories for treatment of TB is?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six
5. Seven

Q. What are the current weight band categories for FDC's in adults as per NTEP?

1. 25-40,41-55,56-69,≥70
2. 25-34,35-49,50-64,65-75,>75
3. 25-39,40-54,55-69,≥70
4. 21-34,35-40,41-55

Q. MDR in TB is defined as resistance to which of the following drugs?

1. Streptomycin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid
2. Streptomycin, Rifampicin
3. Rifampicin, Isoniazid
4. Streptomycin, Isoniazid

Q. Xpert MTB/RIF test is used to detect?

1. For assessing resistance to Isoniazid
2. For assessing MDR
3. For assessing resistance to Rifampicin
4. Monitoring drug response in MDRTB
5. Diagnosis of TB

Q. The patient presented for a screening test for TB. He doesn't have any signs or symptoms. The method of choice to detect TB during mass screening is?

1. Tuberculin test
2. Mass miniature radiography
3. Sputum smear examination by direct microscopy
4. Sputum culture

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Q. To address the morbidity of COVID-19 and TB, the following activity should be done?

1. Bi-directional TB COVID screening
2. TB screening for ILI cases
3. TB screening for SARI cases
4. All the above

Q. All the following regarding the NTEP are wrong except?

1. Active case finding is not done.
2. DOT short course strategy is applied.
3. Treatment is only given to smear-positive cases.
4. All the above

Q. For DRTB, what is the incentive to DOTS providers currently?

1. 3000 INR on completion of IP & 2000 INR on completion of CP
2. 3000 INR on completion of IP & 3000 INR on completion of CP
3. 2000 INR on completion of IP & 3000 INR on completion of CP
4. 4000 INR on completion of IP & 2000 INR on completion of CP
5. 4000 INR on completion of IP & 4000 INR on completion of CP

Q. What is the incentive to private practitioners for notification of TB patients?

1. Rs 1000 as one-time payment on notification
2. Rs 1000 to private practitioners for updating the patients treatment
3. Rs 500 as one-time payment on notification & Rs 500 to private practitioners for updating the patients treatment outcome
4. Rs 2000 to private practitioners for updating the patients treatment outcome
5. Rs 500 as one-time payment on notification & Rs 1000 to private practitioners for updating the patients treatment outcome

Q. For TB case detection under NTEP, what is the incentive to be given to any member of the community who helps in TB case detection?

1. Rs 1000
2. Rs 2000
3. Rs 500
4. Rs 1500
5. Rs 750

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Q. NVBDCP does not include:

1. Filariasis
2. Zika virus disease
3. Kala-azar
4. Chikungunya

Q. The following is an anti-larval measure in malaria vector control.

1. Indoor residual sprays
2. Space application
3. Individual protection
4. Source reduction

Q. In areas with API > 2, if insecticides are refractory to DDT:

1. Regular spraying with 1 round of malathion
2. Regular spraying with 3 rounds of malathion
3. Regular spraying with 1 round of pyrethroid
4. Regular spraying of 2 rounds of pyrethroids

Q. What is the half-life of insecticide-treated bed nets?

1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 9 months
4. 1 year

Q. What is the minimum number of holes per square inch of mosquito nets?

1. 100
2. 150
3. 200
4. 250

Q. The preparation of a thin smear for malaria reflects which property of a screening test?

1. Sensitivity
2. Specificity
3. Predictive value
4. None of the above

• A thick smear reflects sensitivity as it tells us whether a malarial parasite is present or not.

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Q. One microscope for diagnosis of malaria covers how much population?

1. A. 10000
2. B. 15000
3. C. 25000
4. D. 50000

Q. Dipstick test for rapid diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum is based on

1. Arginine-rich protein
2. Histidine-rich protein
3. Tyrosine-rich protein
4. Serine-rich protein

Q. An optical test is used for detection of

1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Plasmodium vivax
3. Both falciparum & vivax
4. None of the above

Q. k-39 dipstick test is for detection of

1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Plasmodium vivax
3. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala azar)
4. Cutaneous leishmaniasis

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Q. A pregnant woman in her third trimester with fever was diagnosed as a case of Falciparum malaria. Under the National Health Program, which drug is recommended?

1. ACT only
2. ACT with a single dose of primaquine on day 2
3. Chloroquine (VOC)
4. D. Quinine only (1st trimester)

Q. First line of treatment for Plasmodium Ovale

1. Sulphadoxine
2. Pyrimethamine
3. Lumefantrine
4. Chloroquine (VOC)

Q. Plasmodium vivax malaria in pregnancy should be treated in pregnancy by

1. Chloroquine
2. Quinine
3. Pyrimethamine
4. Mefloquine

Q. Drug of choice for short-term chemoprophylaxis of Malaria

1. Mefloquine
2. Doxycycline
3. Primaquine
4. Quinine

Q. Drug of choice for long-term chemoprophylaxis of Malaria

NEET PG PSM

1. Mefloquine
2. Doxycycline
3. Primaquine
4. Quinine

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