Last 5 Years PYQs of INI CET Dermatology

Q1. What advice would you provide to prevent the transmission of active genital warts in a female patient with a history of recurrence, despite her husband not being affected by it?

1. Give continuous prophylaxis to the patient
2. Give prophylactic antivirals to the husband
3. Give antivirals whenever active lesions are present
4. Don’t involve in intercourse when active lesions are present

Ans. 4) Don’t involve in intercourse when active lesions are present

• Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and can be transmitted through sexual contact. When a female patient presents with active genital warts and a history of recurrence, it is important to provide appropriate advice to prevent transmission to her partner.
• The most effective measure to prevent transmission of genital warts is to avoid sexual intercourse when active lesions are present. This is because the virus is most contagious and easily transmitted when the warts are actively present​

Also read: Last 5 years PYQs in Anatomy for INI CET

Q2. What could be the potential cause of the following lesions in a gardener who has a history of thorn prick?​

1. Streptococcus pyogenes
2. Sporothrix schenckii
3. Stronglyoides stercoralis
4. Staphylococcus aureus

Ans. 2) Sporothrix schenckii

• The lesions described in the question, following a thorn prick, are suggestive of a condition known as sporotrichosis or rose gardener's disease.
• Sporotrichosis is a fungal infection caused by the fungus Sporothrix schenckii. This fungus is commonly found in soil, plants, and decaying organic matter, and it can enter the body through minor trauma or breaks in the skin, such as a thorn prick.
• The characteristic feature of sporotrichosis is the distribution of the lesions along the lymphatic vessels. The infection typically starts as a small, painless bump or nodule at the site of the inoculation, and it then spreads along the lymphatic vessels, forming a chain of nodules or ulcers. The lesions may be red, swollen, and may eventually ulcerate. The lymphatic involvement gives rise to a linear or streak-like pattern of lesions.

Q3. What is the diagnosis for a 40-year-old woman who experienced fever and joint pain and subsequently developed a lesion on her nose a few days after taking NSAIDs? ​

1. Dengue
2. Chikungunya
3. Melasma
4. Fixed drug eruption

Ans. 2) Chikungunya

• Chikungunya is a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes mosquito.
• It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, joint pain, muscle pain, and rash.
• The rash in Chikungunya typically presents as maculopapular lesions, which can be seen in various parts of the body, including the face.
• This hyperpigmentation mentioned in this case is known as post-inflammatory pigmentation and can occur due to inflammation and immune responses associated with the viral infection.

Also read: Last 5 year PYQs in Psychiatry  for NEET PG

Q4. The given condition is caused by which drug ?​

1. Actinomycin
2. Bleomycin
3. Mitomycin C
4. Doxorubicin

Ans. 2) Bleomycin

• Flagellate dermatitis, also known as "flagellate erythema," is a distinctive skin reaction that can occur as a side effect of certain medications. Among the given options, the most commonly associated drug with flagellate dermatitis is bleomycin, which is an antineoplastic medication used in the treatment of various cancers.
• Flagellate dermatitis typically appears as linear or streak-like red or brownish patches on the skin, resembling the marks left by a whip or a scratch. It usually occurs on the trunk, extremities, or face and is believed to be an idiosyncratic reaction to Bleomycin.
• Bleomycin-induced flagellate dermatitis is thought to be related to the drug's ability to induce the release of inflammatory mediators, resulting in the characteristic skin reaction. It typically occurs within a few days to weeks after the administration of bleomycin and tends to resolve spontaneously once the drug is discontinued.

Q5. A child presents to OPD with tense bullae over the torso. A biopsy of the lesion showed a subepidermal level of blistering and neutrophil infiltration. What is the drug of choice?​

1. Rituximab
2. Dapsone
3. Cyclosporine
4. Azathioprine

Ans. 2) Dapsone

• Based on the given information of a child presenting with tense bullae over the torso and a biopsy showing subepidermal blistering and neutrophil infiltration, the most likely diagnosis is bullous pemphigoid.
• The primary treatment for Bullous Pemphigoid is systemic immunosuppressive therapy, and dapsone is one of the drugs of choice for this condition.
• It helps to reduce inflammation and control the blistering in bullous pemphigoid.

Q6. A patient presents with the following lesions on the genitals. Scrapings from the lesion would show? ​

1. Tzanck cells
2. Cells with clear halo around the nucleus
3. Molluscum bodies
4. HP bodies

​Ans. 1) Tzanck cells

• When examining scrapings from the lesions on the genitals, the presence of Tzanck cells would be observed.
• Tzanck cells are multinucleated giant cells that are typically seen in viral infections, particularly herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections.
• Microscopically, Tzanck cells are identified as large cells with multiple nuclei within a single cytoplasmic mass.

Also read: Last 5 Year PYQs in ENT for NEET PG

Q7. In a 17-year-old patient, the most distinctive and characteristic indicator of juvenile dermatomyositis is

1. Photosensitive skin rash.
2. Nail bed capillary changes
3. Gottron’s papules
4. Malar rash

Ans. 3) Gottron's papules

Gottron's papules are a classic cutaneous manifestation of dermatomyositis. They are flat or slightly raised, reddish or violaceous papules that typically occur over the extensor surfaces of the joints, such as the knuckles, elbows, and knees. Gottron's papules are pathognomonic for dermatomyositis and are considered highly specific to this condition. Their presence is a key diagnostic feature, especially in juvenile dermatomyositis.

​Q8. The image given below is characteristically seen in which of the following types of leprosy?​

1. Borderline lepromatous leprosy
2. Lepromatous leprosy
3. Borderline leprosy
4. Histoid leprosy

​Ans. 3) Borderline leprosy

• A borderline leprosy is an intermediate form between lepromatous leprosy and tuberculoid leprosy. It is characterized by a variable number of skin lesions that may be hypo- or hyperpigmented and show partial loss of sensation. The lesions can be patchy and can affect different areas of the body, including the scalp. Borderline leprosy often presents with a mix of characteristics from both lepromatous and tuberculoid forms, including varying levels of bacterial load and immune response.

Q9. What is the probable diagnosis for a 65-year-old male who presents with itchy, tense bullae on his limbs, which eventually collapses after a few days?​

1. Bullous pemphigoid
2. Pemphigus vulgaris
3. Dermatitis herpetiformis
4. Linear IgA dermatosis

​Ans. 1) Bullous pemphigoid

• Bullous pemphigoid is a chronic autoimmune blistering disease characterized by the formation of tense bullae (fluid-filled blisters) that are typically itchy.
• The bullae are often located on the limbs, particularly the inner thighs and forearms, but can also occur in other areas of the body.
• As the bullae in bullous pemphigoid mature and heal, the roof of the blister may collapse or become crusted

Also read: Last 5 Year PYQs in Pathology for NEET PG​

Q10. A 45-year-old male patient from Bihar presented with a normoanesthetic hypopigmented lesion as shown below. He had a history of fever for a long duration in his childhood. No thickened nerves were present. What is the probable diagnosis?​

1. Tuberculoid leprosy
2. Lepromatous leprosy
3. Mycosis fungoides
4. Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis

​Ans. 4) Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis

Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL): PKDL is a dermatological manifestation that occurs following visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) infection. It is mainly seen in regions where visceral leishmaniasis is endemic, such as Bihar in India. PKDL typically presents with hypopigmented or erythematous macules, papules, or nodules on the skin. The lesions can be normoanesthetic or hypoesthetic, and they commonly appear on the face, limbs, and trunk. In PKDL, there is no thickening of nerves, which helps differentiate it from lepromatous leprosy.

Q11. A 10-year-old male child visits with symptoms of fever, joint pain, and a visible skin abnormality on his hand, as depicted in the provided image. Please identify the clinical observation and suggest a probable diagnosis.​

1. Gottron’s papules – Juvenile dermatomyositis
2. Rheumatoid nodules – Juvenile rheumatic arthritis
3. Sclerodactyly-Systemic sclerosis
4. Mechanic’s hand – Systemic lupus erythematosus

​Ans. 1) Gottron’s papules – Juvenile dermatomyositis

• Gottron's papules are a characteristic finding in juvenile dermatomyositis (JDM).
• JDM is a rare autoimmune disease that primarily affects children and causes muscle weakness, skin rashes, and other symptoms.
• Gottron's papules are flat or raised, scaly, violaceous lesions that appear on the knuckles, elbows, or knees and are pathognomonic for JDM.

Q12. What is the preferred treatment for a pregnant woman who is 12 weeks pregnant and undergoing multidrug therapy for leprosy but is now experiencing a type 2 lepra reaction?

1. Stop MDT and start oral steroids.
2. Antibiotics
3. Thalidomide
4. Continue MDT and add oral steroids

Ans. 4) Continue MDT and add oral steroids

• The treatment of choice for a pregnant woman with type 2 lepra reaction already on multidrug therapy (MDT) for leprosy would be to continue MDT and add oral steroids.
• Type 2 lepra reaction, also known as erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL), is an immune-mediated complication of leprosy that can occur during or after MDT. Painful skin nodules, fever, malaise, joint pain, and systemic symptoms characterize it.
• In pregnant women, the primary concern is the safety of the fetus. Discontinuing MDT could compromise the treatment of leprosy, leading to disease progression and increased risk to both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, it is generally recommended to continue MDT in pregnant women with leprosy.
• The addition of oral steroids to the treatment regimen has been shown to be effective in managing the symptoms of type 2 lepra reactions. Steroids, such as prednisolone, have potent anti-inflammatory properties and can help reduce the inflammation associated with ENL. They can alleviate symptoms, decrease the severity of skin lesions, and improve the patient’s overall well-being.​

Also read: Last 5 Year PYQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG

Q13. A 60-year-old patient presents with the lesion given in the image below. He also mentions experiencing sensations like a spider crawling in the area of the lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?​

1. Herpes zoster infection
2. Irritant contact dermatitis
3. Allergic contact dermatitis
4. Herpes simplex infection

Ans. 1) Herpes zoster infection:

• Based on the patient's history and unilateral, red-grouped vesicle lesion appearance, the most likely diagnosis is herpes zoster infection, also known as shingles. This is a viral infection caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. The virus can remain dormant in the nervous system for years and reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Shingles can often present as shooting pains or “crawling” sensations.

Q14. Which of the following factors is responsible for non-scarring alopecia in patients?

1. Alopecia areata
2. Telogen effluvium
3. Androgenic alopecia
4. Frontal fibrosing alopecia

1. 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2, 3, and 4
4. Only 4

Ans. 2) 1, 2 and 3

• Alopecia areata is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks the hair follicles, leading to hair loss in patches.
• Telogen effluvium, a type of alopecia, is caused by a disturbance in the hair growth cycle, and it can occur due to various reasons such as stress, pregnancy, medication, and nutritional deficiencies.
• Androgenic alopecia is a genetic form of hair loss that affects both men and women. It is also known as male or female pattern baldness.
• Thus, alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, and androgenic alopecia cause non-scarring alopecia. However, facial fibrosing alopecia causes scarring alopecia.

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Also check the Previous Year Question Papers for NEET PG Exams.