Orthopaedics Important Questions for NEET PG/FMGE'25

As all the aspirants must already know, orthopaedics is one of the most crucial subjects for NEET PG/FMGE exam. You need to have a solid understanding of bones, joints, and associated disorders if you wish to perform well in the exam.

Ensure that you are clear about the basics about diagnosing and managing a wide range of conditions. We understand that you have an extensive syllabus to cover with so little time. That is the reason why we have compiled a list of high-yield orthopedic questions for you to prepare effectively.

With detailed explanation for each question, you are about to get comprehensive knowledge regarding all high-yield topics.

Without further ado, let’s explore the questions and help you prepare for the exam like never before.

Q.1 Match the following epiphyseal centres with their respective ages based on their appearance.

1. Capitulum	a. 4 years
2. Radial head	b. 8 years
3. Medial epicondyle	c. 2 years
4. Trochlea appears	d. 6 years

1. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
2. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
3. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
4. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

Answer: D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

Explanation:

The appearance of the epiphyseal centres around the elbow joint with their respective ages is given below

Epiphyseal centers	Age of Appearance
Capitulum	2 years
Radial head	4 years
Medial epicondyle	6 years
Trochlea	8 years
Olecranon	10 years
Lateral epicondyle	12 years

Also read: Pharmacology Important Questions for NEET PG/FMGE 2025

Q.2 Which of the following options would be considered an indication for surgical intervention in Pott’s spine?

1. Large paraspinal abscess
2. Extensive vertebral destruction
3. Worsening neural complications despite conservative treatment
4. All of the above

Answer: 4) All of the above

Q.3 A 25-year-old male basketball player presents with knee instability following a non-contact pivoting injury. You perform the anterior drawer test with the patient’s knee flexed to 90° in the supine position, but there is minimal anterior translation of the tibia. However, the Lachman test shows increased anterior tibial translation with no firm endpoint. What is the reason behind the difference in the degree of tibial translational anteriorly between the two clinical tests?

1. The anterior drawer test is more reliable for ACL injuries.
2. The Lachman test isolates the ACL better by minimizing hamstring influence.
3. The anterior drawer test was performed incorrectly.
4. The patient likely has a partial PCL tear affecting the anterior drawer test.

Answer: 2) The Lachman test isolates the ACL better by minimizing hamstring influence.

Explanation: 

• The Lachman test is more sensitive for ACL injuries because it is performed with the knee flexed at 30°, reducing the influence of the hamstrings. 
• The hamstrings may stabilize the tibia, limiting its forward movement during the anterior drawer test (performed with the knee flexed at 90°.

Also read: Amputation and Different Types in Orthopedics

Q.4 A 7-year-old boy falls off the monkey bars, landing on his outstretched hand, and immediately experiences severe pain and swelling around his elbow. An X-ray reveals a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Which of the following features will NOT be seen if his radial nerve is injured?

1. Loss of extension of metacarpophalangeal joints 
2. Radial deviation of the wrist  
3. Thumb weakness 
4. Absence of triceps reflex

Answer: 4) Absence of triceps reflex

Explanation:

The absence of triceps reflex is seen in the injury of the radial nerve around the shoulder joint, not the elbow joint.

Q.5 Which of the following is a characteristic X-ray finding in patients with ankylosing spondylitis?

1. Joint effusion
2. Squaring of vertebrae
3. Osteophyte formation
4. Cartilage loss

Answer: 2) Squaring of vertebrae

Explanation:

Squaring of vertebrae (flattening of the normal anterior concavity of the vertebra) is a key radiological feature of ankylosing spondylitis, caused by inflammation and erosion at the attachment points of ligaments, leading to a flattened appearance of the vertebral bodies.

Also read: Osteoporosis Complete Overview

Q.6 Which of the following features are associated with rickets?

1. Craniotabes
2. Scorbutic rosary
3. Bossing of the skull
4. Harrison’s sulcus
5. Perifollicular hemorrhage
6. Brown's tumour
7. Widening of wrists

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 3, 4, 7

C. 2, 3, 4, 5

D. 3,4, 6

Answer: B) 1, 3, 4, 7

Explanation:

The features associated with rickets include craniotabes, bossing of the skull, Harrison’s sulcus, and widening of wrists, all of which indicate abnormal bone development and mineralization due to vitamin D deficiency or other underlying issues related to the condition.

Q.7 Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological sequence leading to Volkmann's ischemic contracture in its most common location?

1. Venous thrombosis → muscle oedema → nerve compression → contracture of the calf muscles
2. Arterial insufficiency → compartment syndrome → myonecrosis → fibrosis of the forearm flexor muscles
3. Nerve entrapment → muscle atrophy → joint stiffness → contracture of the intrinsic hand muscles
4. Lymphatic obstruction → tissue swelling → collagen deposition → contracture of the upper arm extensors

Answer: 2) Arterial insufficiency → compartment syndrome → myonecrosis → fibrosis of the forearm flexor muscles

Explanation: 

• Volkmann's ischemic contracture typically results from a sequence of events starting with arterial insufficiency - Volkmann’s ischemia (often due to trauma like supracondylar fractures), leading to compartment syndrome. 
• This causes myonecrosis (muscle death) in the forearm, which stimulates fibroblast proliferation and ultimately results in fibrosis of the flexor muscles, causing the characteristic contracture.
• Volkmann ischemic contracture is classically associated with a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. However, any fracture of the arm or elbow may result in this deformity.

Acute compartment syndrome is caused by ischemia of a closed compartment of the body (most commonly forearm) which leads to increased intra-compartmental pressure.

• It may be due to a decrease in compartment size or an increase in the volume of the compartment. 
• Prolonged ischemia will lead to myonecrosis stimulating fibrosis resulting in a fibrotic pull of the wrists and fingers.

Causes include:

1. Tight bandages and dressings
2. Animal bites
3. Burns
4. Intensive and excessive exercises
5. Muscle hypertrophy
6. Neoplasms
7. Bleeding into a closed compartment (injury to a vessel, congenital or acquired disorder)
8. Injections in the forearm
9. Surgery on the forearm

Also read: Herniated Disc: Causes, Symptoms, Risk Factors, Diagnosis

Q.8 A 12-year-old boy presents with a history of mild pain in his right shoulder following a minor fall. The X-ray is shown below. There is no significant swelling or erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Osteosarcoma
2. Aneurysmal Bone Cyst
3. Fibrous Dysplasia
4. Simple Bone Cyst

Answer: 4) Simple Bone Cyst

Explanation:

The X-ray shows a fragment of bone within the cyst cavity following a fracture (Falling leaf sign), suggestive of a simple bone cyst.

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