Anatomy Clinical Questions For NEET PG/FMGE 2025

From basic science to clinical practice, there is no subject more substantial than Anatomy when it comes to acing high-stake exams like NEET PG and FMGE. For all the 2025 aspirants, it is crucial for you to have a solid understanding of clinical anatomy.

It is necessary to get your concerts cleared if you wish to excel in the exams and effectively apply concepts in real-life scenarios.

In this blog, we’ve enlisted some high-yield questions, meticulously curated to focus on key topics like embryology, nerve pathways, and more.

We’ve also given detailed explanations with each question. So, you can test your knowledge and reinforce important topics in your revision strategy.

These questions will help you stay ahead whether you are just brushing up your knowledge or strengthening your preparation.

Q1. Which of the following best describes the stage at which the primary oocyte is arrested during oogenesis before puberty?

1. Metaphase of meiosis I
2. Prophase of meiosis II
3. Anaphase of meiosis I
4. Prophase of meiosis I

Answer:4) Prophase of meiosis I

Explanation: 

The primary oocyte gets arrested in the prophase of meiosis I during fetal development and remains in this stage until puberty.

Also read: FMT Clinical and Non-Clinical Practice Questions for NEET PG/FMGE

Q2. A newborn presents with scoliosis and underdeveloped axial muscles. Imaging reveals defects in the vertebral column. Which embryological structure is primarily responsible for the development of these affected tissues?

Options

1. Paraxial mesoderm
2. Lateral plate mesoderm
3. Intermediate mesoderm
4. Extraembryonic mesoderm

Answer: 1) Paraxial Mesoderm 

Explanation: Paraxial mesoderm gives rise to somites, which further differentiate into the sclerotome (forming the vertebral column), myotome (forming skeletal muscles), and dermatome (forming dermis). Defects in this structure can result in abnormalities in the axial skeleton (such as scoliosis) and skeletal muscles.

Q3. Identify the correct option.

1. 6- Trigeminal nerve; 7- Trochlear nerve
2. 5- Abducens nerve; 3- Vagus nerve
3. 1- Hypoglossal nerve; 2- Facial nerve
4. 4- Vestibulocochlear nerve; 8- Optic Nerve

Answer: 2) 5- Abducens nerve; 3- Vagus nerve

Explanation:

Attachment of the nerves to the brain: 

• 1, 2 - Forebrain
• 3- Arises from ventral midbrain
• 4- Dorsal midbrain (cannot see its origin in the Anterior view of the brainstem)
• 5- Lateral pons
• 6, 7, 8- Ponto medullary junction (from medial to   respectively)
• 9, 10, 11- Lateral to olives (from superior to inferior, respectively)
• 12- Between pyramid and olives

Q4. Which of the following is the correct pairing of the pharyngeal pouch with its derivative?

1. 1st pharyngeal pouch-Thymus 
2. 2nd pharyngeal pouch-Tonsillar fossa
3. 3rd pharyngeal pouch-Auditory tube
4. 4th pharyngeal pouch-Palatine tonsil

Answer: 2) 2nd pharyngeal pouch-Tonsillar fossa

Explanation: 

Pharyngeal Pouch	Derivatives
1st Pharyngeal Pouch	- Tympanic cavity- Auditory tube- Inner surface of the eardrum
		2nd Pharyngeal Pouch	- Palatine tonsil- Tonsillar fossa
				3rd Pharyngeal Pouch	- Thymus- Inferior parathyroid glands
4th Pharyngeal Pouch	- Superior parathyroid glands- Thyroid gland

Also read: Important Anesthesia Questions for NEET PG/FMG Exam 2025

Q5. A 30-year-old man presents with numbness in his upper lip and cheek, along with difficulty sensing temperature changes following a dental procedure. Through which of the following marked structures does the affected nerve pass?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Correct  Answer: 4) D

Explanation:

The nerve affected in the given scenario is the Maxillary nerve, which passes through the foramen rotundum in the middle cranial fossa.

Q6. A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of difficulty swallowing and loss of taste sensation from the posterior third of his tongue. On examination, there is a loss of the gag reflex on the right side. Further tests reveal decreased salivary secretion from the parotid gland. Given the clinical findings, which of the following structures is most likely affected in this patient?

Options

1. Otic ganglion
2. Submandibular ganglion
3. Ciliary ganglion
4. Pterygopalatine ganglion

Answer: 1) Otic ganglion

Explanation: 

The patient's symptoms suggest a lesion of the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX), which provides sensory innervation to the posterior third of the tongue and contributes to the gag reflex.

Also read: Diaphragm: Development and Openings

Q7. A 32-year-old female presents to the ENT clinic with persistent nasal congestion, facial pain, and a reduced sense of smell. After minimal relief from medications, a nasal endoscopy is planned. Which of the following openings is not present in the structure labelled “X” in the image below?

1. Frontal air sinus
2. Maxillary air sinus
3. Anterior ethmoidal air sinuses
4. Posterior ethmoidal air sinuses

Answer: 4) Posterior ethmoidal air sinuses

Explanation:

The provided image depicts the lateral wall of the nose, with the structure labelled as the hiatus semilunaris, which contains three openings: the maxillary sinus, the frontal sinus, and the anterior ethmoidal air cells.

Q8. By the end of fetal development, at which vertebral level does the spinal cord terminate?

1. Lower border of L1
2. Lower border of L2
3. Upper border of L3
4. Lower border of L3

Answer: 3) Upper border of  L3

Explanation: 

By the end of fetal development, the spinal cord terminates at the upper border of the L3 vertebra.

Stages of Spinal Cord Termination​ 

Q9. A 45-year-old patient presents with recurrent episodes of supraventricular tachycardia. The electrophysiologist plans to perform catheter ablation. Which of the following structures is most likely to be found at the apex of Koch's triangle?

1. Sinoatrial node 
2. Atrioventricular node 
3. Bundle of His 
4. Right bundle branch

Answer: 2) Atrioventricular node

Explanation: 

The Triangle of Koch is situated on the right atrial aspect of the interatrial septum.

Also read: Lumbar Puncture : Procedure

Q10. A patient has a forearm laceration that results in an inability to flex the distal phalanges of the index and middle fingers. The affected muscle has dual nerve supply. Identify the muscle injured.

Options

1. Flexor digitorum superficialis
2. Flexor pollicis longus
3. Palmaris longus
4. Flexor digitorum profundus

Answer: 4) Flexor digitorum profundus

Explanation: 

• The flexor digitorum profundus is responsible for flexing the distal phalanges of the fingers. This muscle has dual nerve supply:
  • Median nerve: Innervates the lateral half, which corresponds to the index and middle fingers.
  • Ulnar nerve: Innervates the medial half, which corresponds to the ring and little fingers.
• The flexor digitorum profundus is a deep muscle of the hand responsible for flexing the distal phalanges following the action of the flexor digitorum superficialis. which flexes the middle phalanges and is the main muscle for gripping.

Q11. A newborn is scheduled for surgery after presenting with fecal discharge from the umbilicus. An intraoperative image is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Meckel’s diverticulum
2. Vitelline fistula
3. Vitelline sinus
4. Vitelline cyst

Answer: B) Vitelline fistula

Explanation: Newborn exhibiting fecal discharge from the umbilicus, along with intraoperative finding of vitelline duct joining umbilicus to small intestine point towards diagnosis of vitelline fistula or umbilical fistula.

Also read: Muscles of The Hand - PrepLadder

Q12. A 35-year-old man presents with abdominal pain and ascites. Imaging reveals obstruction of hepatic venous outflow consistent with Budd-Chiari syndrome. Which of the following statements best explains the preservation of the caudate lobe in this condition?

1. The caudate lobe has a separate arterial supply that protects it from hepatic venous obstruction.
2. The caudate lobe drains directly into the inferior vena cava via emissary veins, bypassing the obstructed hepatic veins.
3. The caudate lobe is less affected by portal hypertension due to its anatomical position.
4. The caudate lobe undergoes necrosis less frequently than other liver segments in Budd-Chiari syndrome.

Answer: 2) The caudate lobe drains directly into the inferior vena cava via emissary veins, bypassing the obstructed hepatic veins.

Explanation:

The direct drainage of the caudate lobe into the IVC via emissary veins is key to its preservation during hepatic venous obstruction.

Q13. A 35-year-old patient presents following a fall from a ladder. The patient exhibits specific neurological symptoms: loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg, difficulty identifying the position of the right leg with eyes closed, and complete loss of sensation at the T12 level of the trunk on the right. Which of the following statements is false for this condition?

1. Loss of proprioception in the right leg occurs due to the right dorsal column.
2. Loss of pain in the left leg occurs due to the left spinothalamic tract.
3. Damage to the ventral nerve roots at the T12 level results in loss of sensation.
4. Spastic paralysis of the right leg

Answer: 2) Loss of pain in the left leg occurs due to the left spinothalamic tract.

Explanation:

• The patient's presentation is consistent with Brown-Séquard syndrome, resulting from a hemisection of the spinal cord.
• In Brown-Séquard syndrome, pain and temperature sensations are lost on the opposite side of the body from the lesion due to the crossing of the spinothalamic tract fibers. Therefore, loss of pain in the left leg would be due to damage to the right spinothalamic tract, not the left.

Q14. A 33-year-old woman in labour is experiencing discomfort and perianal pain and is scheduled to receive a pudendal nerve block. Which anatomical landmarks should the clinician identify to locate the pudendal nerve accurately?

1. Lesser sciatic notch
2. Pubic symphysis 
3. Greater sciatic notch
4. Ischial spine

Answer: 4) Ischial spine

Explanation: 

• In the pudendal nerve block,  the nerve is infiltrated with a local anaesthetic at the point where it crosses the ischial spine using a needle inserted through the vaginal wall, directed by a finger.
• It aids in achieving almost painless vaginal or forceps deliveries and is also helpful for minor surgeries involving the vagina and perineum.
• When a bilateral pudendal block is administered, it results in a loss of the anal reflex (saddle anaesthesia), relaxation of the pelvic floor muscles, and diminished sensation in the vulva and lower third of the vagina.

Also read: Development of Genito-Urinary System

Q15. Which muscles are involved in the locking and unlocking of the knee joint?

1. Hamstring muscles for both locking and unlocking
2. Quadriceps femoris for locking and popliteus for unlocking
3. Popliteus for both locking and unlocking
4. Soleus for unlocking and hamstring for locking

Answer: 2) Quadriceps femoris for locking and popliteus for unlocking

Explanation:

The quadriceps femoris muscle group extends the knee and helps in the locking mechanism when the knee is fully extended. The popliteus muscle is responsible for unlocking the knee by initiating flexion, particularly from a fully extended position.

Q16. A 32-year-old man presents to the ER after falling onto a sharp object while riding a bicycle. He complains of difficulty urinating and swelling around his genital area. Examination reveals urine extravasation into the scrotum and anterior abdominal wall. What is the most likely site of urethral injury in this patient?

1. Membranous urethra
2. Prostatic urethra
3. Bulb of the penis
4. Can be any of the above

Answer: 3) Bulb of the penis

Explanation:

The most common site of urethral rupture is at the bulb of the penis, typically caused by trauma such as a fall onto a sharp object.

In this case, the urethra is crushed against the pubic bones. Urine then leaks into the superficial perineal pouch and spreads over the scrotum, penis, and anterior abdominal wall beneath the membranous layer of the superficial fascia (superficial extravasation).

Q17. A 72-year-old man visits the clinic for evaluation of urinary symptoms, including nocturia, increased urgency, and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. During the examination, a digital rectal exam reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate without any palpable nodules. The patient's PSA level is slightly elevated at 5.5 ng/mL.  In which zone of the prostate does this condition primarily occur?

1. Peripheral zone  
2. Central zone  
3. Transitional zone  
4. Anterior fibromuscular stroma

Answer: 3) Transitional zone

Explanation:

The above-mentioned condition is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and the transitional zone is primarily responsible for it.

Transitional zone

Constitutes two small lobules around the prostatic urethra.Represent the region where benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) primarily originates. Carcinomas that originate in the transition zone have been suggested to be of lower malignant potential.

Also read: Development of Mesentery and Pancreas

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