Last 5 Year PYQs in OBG for FMGE

Q1. A 24-year-old primigravida presents with painful vaginal bleeding in the first trimester. On USG, a well-formed gestation ring with central echoes from the embryo indicates a healthy fetus and there is an observation of fetal cardiac motion. What is the most probable diagnosis?

1. Inevitable abortion
2. Threatened abortion
3. Incomplete abortion
4. Complete abortion

Ans. 2) Threatened abortion

• In the above case, the 24-year-old primigravida presents with painful vaginal bleeding in the first trimester. On USG, a well-formed gestation ring with central echoes from the embryo indicates a healthy fetus and there is an observation of fetal cardiac motion. This is strongly suggestive of threatened abortion.

Q2. What is the most probable diagnosis for a 30-year-old woman who previously had dilatation and curettage and now presents with amenorrhea, a negative urine pregnancy test, and a honeycomb appearance in the uterine cavity on HSG?

1. Asherman syndrome
2. Kallman syndrome
3. Sheehan syndrome
4. Stein-Leventhal syndrome

Ans. 1) Asherman syndrome

• In the above case, a 30-year-old woman who underwent dilatation and curettage previously now presents with amenorrhea. The urine pregnancy test is negative. HSG revealed a honeycomb appearance in the uterine cavity. The most likely diagnosis is that of Asherman syndrome. It is the presence of adhesions within the endometrial cavity.

Also read: Last 5 Year PYQs in FMT for FMGE

Q3. A 22-year-old woman comes for emergency contraception within 8 hours after engaging in sexual intercourse. She expresses a preference for a single pill rather than multiple pills. What would be your recommendation in this situation?

1. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg
2. Ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel
3. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg
4. Desogestrel 3 mg

Ans. 3) Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg

• The emergency contraception pill is Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg. It has no estrogen; therefore, none of its associated side effects are seen. It is taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.

Q4. What is the probable diagnosis for a middle-aged woman who complains of dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and infertility and exhibits a retroverted uterus that is fixed, tender, and accompanied by tender nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments?

1. PID
2. Endometriosis
3. Pelvic TB
4. Leiomyoma

Ans. 2) Endometriosis

• In the above case, a middle-aged woman presented with dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and infertility, and on examination, fixed, tender, retroverted uterus and tender nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments are noted. The most probable diagnosis is endometriosis.

Q5. What is the most likely cause of the irregular periods in a 20-year-old female, based on the ultrasound scan findings shown in the image?

1. PCOD
2. Obesity
3. Hirsutism
4. Turner’s syndrome

Ans. 1) PCOD

• In the above case, the 20-year-old female complained of irregular periods and her USG scan shows multiple ovarian follicles arranged in a necklace pattern, which is suggestive of PCOD or polycystic ovarian disease.

Also read: Last 5 Year PYQs in Anatomy for FMGE

Q6. The usage of the given device in the picture is.​

1. Hysterosalpingography
2. Measure the length of the uterus
3. Retraction
4. Menstrual regulation/aspiration

Ans.  4) Menstrual regulation/aspiration.

Menstrual regulation/aspiration: This is the Ans. The Karman cannula, also known as the Karman curette, is commonly used for menstrual regulation (also known as menstrual aspiration or menstrual extraction). It's a method used to terminate early pregnancies by removing the uterine contents through suction. This procedure is performed in the early stages of pregnancy and involves the use of a vacuum aspirator with the Karman cannula.

Q7. ​A woman, who is in her 8th week of pregnancy, has come seeking medical termination of pregnancy (MTP). What would be the correct dosage of misoprostol to be given through the mucosal route?

1. 200 mcg
2. 600 mcg
3. 400 mcg
4. 800 mcg

Ans. 4) 800 mg

• Misoprostol is typically administered 1 to 2 days (24 to 48 hours) following the ingestion of mifepristone. The recommended dosage of misoprostol depends on the gestational age. For gestations up to 7 weeks (49 days), misoprostol can be administered through vaginal, buccal, sublingual, or oral routes. For gestations up to 9 weeks (63 days), misoprostol can be administered through vaginal, buccal, or sublingual routes. The recommended dose is 800μg for vaginal, buccal, or sublingual administration and 400μg for oral administration.

Also read: OBS-GYN Important Questions for NEET PG/FMGE 2025

Q8. A 24-year-old female primigravida with a history of 3 months of amenorrhoea undergoes USG. The USG done is shown below. What is the USG suggesting?​

1. Ectopic pregnancy
2. Hydatidiform mole
3. Multiple renal cysts in the fetus
4. Oligohydramnios

Ans. 2) Hydatidiform mole

• The ultrasound findings include a heterogeneous mass in the uterine cavity with multiple anechoic spaces, most commonly referred to as "snowstorm" appearance, which indicates a complete Molar pregnancy.
• Typically, USG findings of molar pregnancy reveal a distended endometrial cavity containing a heterogeneous intrauterine mass with multiple cystic spaces, demonstrating a snowstorm appearance with absent fetal parts.

Q9. In a patient with endometrial carcinoma undergoing pelvic external beam irradiation for the entire pelvis, which organ in the pelvic region exhibits the highest sensitivity to radiation?

1. Ovary
2. Vagina
3. Bladder
4. Rectum

Ans. 1) Ovary

• The ovary is considered one of the most radiosensitive organs in the pelvic region. Gonadal toxicity following exposure to radiation therapy mainly involves a decline in the endocrine functions that sustain the production of sex hormones and germ cells. Pelvic radiotherapy results in ovarian injury and diminished follicle reserve; the extent of damage is largely based on the patient’s age, treatment dose, and irradiation field.

Also read: Vaginal Discharge: Types, Complications and Treatment

Q10. Which of the options below does not indicate the use of expectant management in the case of unruptured ectopic pregnancy?

1. Initial serum beta-hCG level <200 mIU/mL
2. Gestational sac size >4 cm
3. Asymptomatic
4. Decreasing beta hCG measurement

Ans. 2) Gestational sac size >4 cm

• Expectant management, also known as watchful waiting or conservative management, is a management approach in which a medical condition or situation is monitored closely without immediate intervention. However, when it comes to a gestational sac size exceeding 4 cm, expectant management is generally not recommended. A gestational sac size larger than 4 cm may indicate an abnormal pregnancy, such as a molar pregnancy or anembryonic pregnancy (also known as a blighted ovum). These conditions are associated with an increased risk of complications, including excessive bleeding, infection, and a higher likelihood of requiring intervention.​

Q11. Identify the hormone present in the contraceptive shown in the image below.​

1. Nonoxynol 9
2. Octoxynol 8
3. Menfegol
4. Levonorgestrel

Ans. 1) Nonoxynol 9

• Today is a spermicidal contraceptive. It contains nonoxynol-9, which breaks the outer covering of sperms and kills them, thereby preventing pregnancy.
• Nonoxynol-9 is a vaginal spermicide used for nonhormonal contraception in conjunction with other modes of contraception.

Q12. Which of the following is the IUCD with the longest lifespan?

1. Progestasert
2. CuT 380 A
3. Mirena
4. Nova T

Ans. 2) CuT 380 A

• CuT 380 A is a copper-carrying intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).
• CuT has the highest life span of 10 years.
•  It does not require replacement for long periods and does not interfere with sexual activity

Also read: Bacterial Vaginosis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis & Treatment

Q13. A 28-year-old woman complained of inability to conceive, dysmenorrhea, and pelvic pain. She has a history of frequent episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease. Hysterosalpingogram shows an absence of peritoneal spillage on the right side. What is the diagnosis?

1. Tubal block
2. Endometriosis
3. Asherman syndrome
4. Bilateral hydrosalpinx

Ans. 1) Tubal block

• A blocked fallopian tube, or tubal factor infertility, occurs when an obstruction, such as scarring, an adhesion, or infection, prevents the ovum from traveling down the tube.
• This patient's history of frequent PID, combined with a lack of peritoneal spill of contrast on HSG, indicates a diagnosis of unilateral tubal blockage.
• Other tests for tubal patency:
  • Laparoscopic chromotubation
  • Sonosalpingography (SSG)
  • Hysteroscopy and falloscopy.
  • Ampullary and fimbrial salpingoscopy​

Q14. What is the use of the instrument given below? ​

1. Myomectomy
2. Hysterosalpingography
3. Endometrial biopsy
4. Conization of cervix

Ans. 2) Hysterosalpingography

• The given instrument is the Leech-Wilkinson intrauterine cannula, which is used in hysterosalpingography. It is a straight instrument with a conical tip. This cone is screwed into the cervix. Then dye is injected.

Also read: Postpartum Hemorrhage: Causes, Types and Management

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